Okay, here goes...
Since the writer [of Jude] has drawn his examples [of how God punishes sinners] from Exodus/Numbers, 1 Enoch, and Genesis, he must have believed each of them was an appropriate source of information about the Lord's record in punishing sinners....
A few verses later, Jude quotes from 1 Enoch:
It was also about these that Enoch, in the seventh generation from Adam, prophesied, saying, "See, the Lord is coming with ten thousand of his holy ones, to execute judgement on all, and to convict everyone of all the deeds of ungodliness that they have committed in such an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things that ungodly sinners have spoken against him. (vv. 14-15)
We should note that Enoch is credited with "prophesying," and, as the context shows, the sense of the verb here is that he predicted: the seventh from Adam had already spoken about the ungodly intruders who unsettled Jude... So we may conclude, Jude knew several parts of the Book of Watchers [the first section of 1 Enoch] and believed that the ancient patriarch had extraordinary predictive powers. [VanderKam, p. 171]
- If author of Jude saw 1 Enoch as "authoritative" did they also see it as being "scripture" to some degree?
- If an "inspired" author of a text that we see as "biblical" quotes a writing in an authoritative manner, how are we to understand the quoted text?
- What does this citation say about the Biblical text as "God's Word?" In other words, is everything quoted in the Bible "God's Word?" If so, then is a certain portion of apocryphal writing now to be seen as "God's Word?" If not, then is it correct to speak of the Bible as "God's Word" without some qualification?